St. Paul wrote about the Coming of the Lord

We have to remember that the Bibles we are reading are translations. When we come upon some ambiguous passages, probably the original are no better.
When Paul wrote this second epistle to the Thessalonians, he was trying to clarify the misunderstanding arose from the first epistle he wrote. Both epistles are closely related and should not be read out of context. The first epistle provides the background. The second clarifies. The whole issue arose from wild guesses of the coming of the Lord. The end of the world is an evergreen topic. There is always a market because there must be someone not happy with the status quo, the present situation of the society. They are not necessarily terrorists who are eager to bring down the System. But nobody wants to be caught unprepared, to be left behind. It would be most regrettable if you spent your last day on earth without knowing that it were the last. That is why people will always want to know anything about the end.
However, the end of the world is always elusive. No crystal-ball gazer has been able to track it down. It also slips out of their fingers. Since nobody knows the exact moment, the best strategy is to be ever ready (Mark 13:32). This is a basic Christian attitude towards the end of the world. Complications arose among the Thessalonian Christians. In his first epistle, Paul dealt with the problem of priority, i.e. whether those who had died suffered any disadvantage at the end of the world (1 Thessalonians 4:15). Paul authoritatively declared the sequence of events leading to the end of the world (1 Thessalonians 4:16-17) and concluded that those who were alive did not have any advantages over those who had already died.
But that did not solve the problem. Paul had to write again. Did he misunderstand the question in the first instance, so now he wrote again to clarify? Or had new misunderstandings arisen so now he wrote to deal with the new issues? Either case, how did Paul guarantee that he would not misunderstand this time? Why do I suspect that Paul misunderstood the problem? It is because of the ambiguous translations.
In the first epistle, Paul dealt with the moment of general resurrection. In the second, he talked about things leading to the moment.
Let no one deceive you in any way; for that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of perdition
Μή τις ὑμᾶς ἐξαπατήσῃ κατὰ μηδένα τρόπον. ὅτι ἐὰν μὴ ἔλθῃ ἡ ἀποστασία πρῶτον καὶ ἀποκαλυφθῇ ὁ ἄνθρωπος τῆς ἀνομίας, ὁ υἱὸς τῆς ἀπωλείας, (2 Thessalonians 2:3).
This man of lawlessness, this son of perdition proclaimed himself God (2 Thessalonians 2:4b) and Paul had told the Thessalonians about this person when he was still with them (2 Thessalonians 2:5). The Lord Jesus would defeat this person (2 Thessalonians 2:8). The coming of this person is the result of the activity of Satan and it would be spectacular (2 Thessalonians 2:9).
This much is certain. However, in between verse 5 to verse 8, things are a little bit sticky.
And you know what is restraining him now so that he may be revealed in his time.
For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only he who now restrains it will do so until he is out of the way
καὶ νῦν τὸ κατέχον οἴδατε εἰς τὸ ἀποκαλυφθῆναι αὐτὸν ἐν τῷ ἑαυτοῦ καιρῷ. τὸ γὰρ μυστήριον ἤδη ἐνεργεῖται τῆς ἀνομίας· μόνον ὁ κατέχων ἄρτι ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται. (2 Thessalonians 2:6-7).
Verse 2:6 presents a problem of background. The Thessalonian Christians knew what was restraining the person but we don't. Was it a kind of power or a person? The man of lawlessness has been held back. His time has not yet come. He is still nobody.
Verse 2:7 is an enigma. What did Paul mean by the mystery of lawlessness? What kind of mystery is it? The restraining force became a person now. What does the 'out of the way' mean? How 'out of the way' is the restraining person? However, the Greek literally means 'from the middle' and is translated into 'out of the way'. The original is ambiguous. The translation can do no better.
The Jewishness of Paul is once again demonstrated in his treatment of those who perish at the end of the world because they do not love the truth (2 Thessalonians 2:10). Paul describes this as an action of God.
Therefore God sends upon them a strong delusion, to make them believe what is false,
so that all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness (2 Thessalonians 2:11-12).
This is very much similar to saying God hardened the heart of Pharaoh so that he refused to release the Israelites, thus inviting God to send 10 plagues to Egypt (Exodus 4:21)! This is a very typical Jewish way of thinking. However, there is a problem. If God makes me to do something evil, am I morally responsible for the evil done? Shouldn't God take at least a part of the blame? It is rather difficult to defend.

My dear Advocate, St. Paul has enlightened us on the perils happening around us before the end of the world. May we heed his warnings and lead a sober and alert life to welcome Your second coming. Amen.